Louis Dessauer
Mrs.Wilhelmus
AP English
8/1/13
Christianizing
Prompt
#3
What is to be gained from Christian philosophers? How can someone Christianize a philosopher
after that philosopher existed before Christ? Why were these people and
philosophies changed? What is the difference between the two? These are the
questions that must be asked and acted upon.
Aristotle’s philosophies encompassed a wide variety of subjects.
I will stick to his philosophies about gender. The way that Aquinas Christianized
his philosophies was just to state that they went along with the bible.
Aristotle was a sexist, if a respected figure in the church believed that there
was some truth in his ways then the
masses believed it. With Aristotle’s sexism turning Christian then it pushed
the belief that men were superior to women even further. If the masses actually
ever read the bible then they would know the truth, as it is written.
Plato did not believe in the senses as much as Aristotle
did but more in the mind and spirit. He believed that there was no “set course”
per say but instead everything flowed around that “set course”. That everything
had a beginning, the perfect one of that specific object or living thing. His
ways were Christianized by St. Augustine with him (St. Augustine) believing
that he knew some of the Old Testament. This would seem impossible because Plato
lived before Christ.
One of the main problems about Christianizing a philosopher’s
work is that they are always contradicting themselves about religion. If a philosopher
does not exactly believe in a one true God, do not force religion upon their
philosophies.
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